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QUESTION 11
Which four tasks are required when you configure Cisco IOS IPS using the Cisco Configuration Professional IPS wizard? (Choose four.)

A.    Select the interface(s) to apply the IPS rule.
B.    Select the traffic flow direction that should be applied by the IPS rule.
C.    Add or remove IPS alerts actions based on the risk rating.
D.    Specify the signature file and the Cisco public key.
E.    Select the IPS bypass mode (fail-open or fail-close).
F.    Specify the configuration location and select the category of signatures to be applied to the selected
interface(s).

Answer: ABDF

QUESTION 12
Which statement is a benefit of using Cisco IOS IPS?

A.    It uses the underlying routing infrastructure to provide an additional layer of security.
B.    It works in passive mode so as not to impact traffic flow.
C.    It supports the complete signature database as a Cisco IPS sensor appliance.
D.    The signature database is tied closely with the Cisco IOS image.

Answer: A

QUESTION 13
Which description of the Diffie-Hellman protocol is true?

A.    It uses symmetrical encryption to provide data confidentiality over an unsecured communications channel.
B.    It uses asymmetrical encryption to provide authentication over an unsecured communications channel.
C.    It is used within the IKE Phase 1 exchange to provide peer authentication.
D.    It provides a way for two peers to establish a shared-secret key, which only they will know, even though
they are communicating over an unsecured channel.
E.    It is a data integrity algorithm that is used within the IKE exchanges to guarantee the integrity of the
message of the IKE exchanges.

Answer: D

QUESTION 14
Which IPsec transform set provides the strongest protection?

A.    crypto ipsec transform-set 1 esp-3des esp-sha-hmac
B.    crypto ipsec transform-set 2 esp-3des esp-md5-hmac
C.    crypto ipsec transform-set 3 esp-aes 256 esp-sha-hmac
D.    crypto ipsec transform-set 4 esp-aes esp-md5-hmac
E.    crypto ipsec transform-set 5 esp-des esp-sha-hmac
F.    crypto ipsec transform-set 6 esp-des esp-md5-hmac

Answer: C

QUESTION 15
Which two options are characteristics of the Cisco Configuration Professional Security Audit wizard? (Choose two.)

A.    displays a screen with fix-it check boxes to let you choose which potential security-related configuration
changes to implement
B.    has two modes of operation: interactive and non-interactive
C.    automatically enables Cisco IOS firewall and Cisco IOS IPS to secure the router
D.    uses interactive dialogs and prompts to implement role-based CLI
E.    requires users to first identify which router interfaces connect to the inside network and which connect to
the outside network

Answer: AE

QUESTION 16
Which statement describes a result of securing the Cisco IOS image using the Cisco IOS image resilience feature?

A.    The show version command does not show the Cisco IOS image file location.
B.    The Cisco IOS image file is not visible in the output from the show flash command.
C.    When the router boots up, the Cisco IOS image is loaded from a secured FTP location.
D.    The running Cisco IOS image is encrypted and then automatically backed up to the NVRAM.
E.    The running Cisco IOS image is encrypted and then automatically backed up to a TFTP server.

Answer: B

QUESTION 17
Which aaa accounting command is used to enable logging of the start and stop records for user terminal sessions on the router?

A.    aaa accounting network start-stop tacacs+
B.    aaa accounting system start-stop tacacs+
C.    aaa accounting exec start-stop tacacs+
D.    aaa accounting connection start-stop tacacs+
E.    aaa accounting commands 15 start-stop tacacs+

Answer: C

QUESTION 18
Which access list permits HTTP traffic sourced from host 10.1.129.100 port 3030 destined to host 192.168.1.10?

A.    access-list 101 permit tcp any eq 3030
B.    access-list 101 permit tcp 10.1.128.0 0.0.1.255 eq 3030 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.15 eq www
C.    access-list 101 permit tcp 10.1.129.0 0.0.0.255 eq www 192.168.1.10 0.0.0.0 eq www
D.    access-list 101 permit tcp host 192.168.1.10 eq 80 10.1.0.0 0.0.255.255 eq 3030
E.    access-list 101 permit tcp 192.168.1.10 0.0.0.0 eq 80 10.1.0.0 0.0.255.255
F.    access-list 101 permit ip host 10.1.129.100 eq 3030 host 192.168.1.100 eq 80

Answer: B

QUESTION 19
Which location is recommended for extended or extended named ACLs?

A.    an intermediate location to filter as much traffic as possible
B.    a location as close to the destination traffic as possible
C.    when using the established keyword, a location close to the destination point to ensure that return traffic
is allowed
D.    a location as close to the source traffic as possible

Answer: D

QUESTION 20
Which statement about asymmetric encryption algorithms is true?

A.    They use the same key for encryption and decryption of data.
B.    They use the same key for decryption but different keys for encryption of data.
C.    They use different keys for encryption and decryption of data.
D.    They use different keys for decryption but the same key for encryption of data.

Answer: C

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QUESTION 1
Which statement describes a best practice when configuring trunking on a switch port?

A.    Disable double tagging by enabling DTP on the trunk port.
B.    Enable encryption on the trunk port.
C.    Enable authentication and encryption on the trunk port.
D.    Limit the allowed VLAN(s) on the trunk to the native VLAN only.
E.    Configure an unused VLAN as the native VLAN.

Answer: E

QUESTION 2
Which type of Layer 2 attack causes a switch to flood all incoming traffic to all ports?

A.    MAC spoofing attack
B.    CAM overflow attack
C.    VLAN hopping attack
D.    STP attack

Answer: B

QUESTION 3
What is the best way to prevent a VLAN hopping attack?

A.    Encapsulate trunk ports with IEEE 802.1Q.
B.    Physically secure data closets.
C.    Disable DTP negotiations.
D.    Enable BDPU guard.

Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Which statement about PVLAN Edge is true?

A.    PVLAN Edge can be configured to restrict the number of MAC addresses that appear on a single port.
B.    The switch does not forward any traffic from one protected port to any other protected port.
C.    By default, when a port policy error occurs, the switchport shuts down.
D.    The switch only forwards traffic to ports within the same VLAN Edge.

Answer: B

QUESTION 5
If you are implementing VLAN trunking, which additional configuration parameter should be added to the trunking configuration?

A.    no switchport mode access
B.    no switchport trunk native VLAN 1
C.    switchport mode DTP
D.    switchport nonnegotiate

Answer: D

QUESTION 6
When Cisco IOS zone-based policy firewall is configured, which three actions can be applied to a traffic class? (Choose three.)

A.    pass
B.    police
C.    inspect
D.    drop
E.    queue
F.    shape

Answer: ACD

QUESTION 7
With Cisco IOS zone-based policy firewall, by default, which three types of traffic are permitted by the router when some of the router interfaces are assigned to a zone? (Choose three.)

A.    traffic flowing between a zone member interface and any interface that is not a zone member
B.    traffic flowing to and from the router interfaces (the self zone)
C.    traffic flowing among the interfaces that are members of the same zone
D.    traffic flowing among the interfaces that are not assigned to any zone
E.    traffic flowing between a zone member interface and another interface that belongs in a different zone
F.    traffic flowing to the zone member interface that is returned traffic

Answer: BCD

QUESTION 8
Which option is a key difference between Cisco IOS interface ACL configurations and Cisco ASA appliance interface ACL configurations?

A.    The Cisco IOS interface ACL has an implicit permit-all rule at the end of each interface ACL.
B.    Cisco IOS supports interface ACL and also global ACL. Global ACL is applied to all interfaces.
C.    The Cisco ASA appliance interface ACL configurations use netmasks instead of wildcard masks.
D.    The Cisco ASA appliance interface ACL also applies to traffic directed to the IP addresses of the Cisco
ASA appliance interfaces.
E.    The Cisco ASA appliance does not support standard ACL. The Cisco ASA appliance only support
extended ACL.

Answer: C

QUESTION 9
Which two options are advantages of an application layer firewall? (Choose two.)

A.    provides high-performance filtering
B.    makes DoS attacks difficult
C.    supports a large number of applications
D.    authenticates devices
E.    authenticates individuals

Answer: BE

QUESTION 10
On Cisco ISR routers, for what purpose is the realm-cisco.pub public encryption key used?

A.    used for SSH server/client authentication and encryption
B.    used to verify the digital signature of the IPS signature file
C.    used to generate a persistent self-signed identity certificate for the ISR so administrators can authenticate
the ISR when accessing it using Cisco Configuration Professional
D.    used to enable asymmetric encryption on IPsec and SSL VPNs
E.    used during the DH exchanges on IPsec VPNs

Answer: B

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QUESTION 191
Which statement describes the process ID that is used to run OSPF on a router?

A.    It is globally significant and is used to represent the AS number.
B.    It is locally significant and is used to identify an instance of the OSPF database.
C.    It is globally significant and is used to identify OSPF stub areas.
D.    It is locally significant and must be the same throughout an area.

Answer: B

QUESTION 192
Which three are the components of SNMP? (Choose three)

A.    MIB
B.    SNMP Manager
C.    SysLog Server
D.    SNMP Agent
E.    Set

Answer: ABD

QUESTION 193
What are the Popular destinations for syslog messages to be saved?

A.    Flash
B.    The logging buffer .RAM
C.    The console terminal
D.    Other terminals
E.    Syslog server

Answer: BCE

QUESTION 194
Syslog was configured with a level 3 trap. Which 3 types of logs would be generated (choose three)

A.    Emergencies
B.    Alerts
C.    Critical
D.    Errors
E.    Warnings

Answer: ABC

QUESTION 195
What are the benefit of using Netflow? (Choose three.)

A.    Network, Application & User Monitoring
B.    Network Planning
C.    Security Analysis
D.    Accounting/Billing

Answer: ACD

QUESTION 196
Which protocol can cause overload on a CPU of a managed device?

A.    Netflow
B.    WCCP
C.    IP SLA
D.    SNMP

Answer: D

QUESTION 197
What are the three things that the Netflow uses to consider the traffic to be in a same flow?

A.    IP address
B.    Interface name
C.    Port numbers
D.    L3 protocol type
E.    MAC address

Answer: ACD

QUESTION 198
What is the alert message generated by SNMP agents called ?

A.    TRAP
B.    INFORM
C.    GET
D.    SET

Answer: AB

QUESTION 199
Which three features are added in SNMPv3 over SNMPv2?

A.    Message Integrity
B.    Compression
C.    Authentication
D.    Encryption
E.    Error Detection

Answer: ACD

QUESTION 200
In a GLBP network, who is responsible for the arp request?

A.    AVF
B.    AVG
C.    Active Router
D.    Standby Router

Answer: B

QUESTION 201
What is a valid HSRP virtual MAC address?

A.    0000.5E00.01A3
B.    0007.B400.AE01
C.    0000.0C07.AC15
D.    0007.5E00.B301

Answer: C

QUESTION 202
In GLBP, which router will respond to client ARP requests?

A.    The active virtual gateway will reply with one of four possible virtual MAC addresses.
B.    All GLBP member routers will reply in round-robin fashion.
C.    The active virtual gateway will reply with its own hardware MAC address.
D.    The GLBP member routers will reply with one of four possible burned in hardware addresses.

Answer: A

QUESTION 203
Which statement describes VRRP object tracking?

A.    It monitors traffic flow and link utilization.
B.    It ensures the best VRRP router is the virtual router master for the group.
C.    It causes traffic to dynamically move to higher bandwidth links.
D.    It thwarts man-in-the-middle attacks.

Answer: B

QUESTION 204
What is a global command?

A.    a command that is set once and affects the entire router
B.    a command that is implemented in all foreign and domestic IOS versions
C.    a command that is universal in application and supports all protocols
D.    a command that is available in every release of IOS, regardless of the version or deployment status
E.    a command that can be entered in any configuration mode

Answer: A
Explanation:
When you enter global configuration mode and enter a command, it is applied to the running configuration file that is currently running in ram. The configuration of a global command affects the entire router. An example of a global command is one used for the hostname of the router.

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QUESTION 181
What are three values that must be the same within a sequence of packets for Netflow to consider them a network flow? (Choose three.)

A.    source IP address
B.    source MAC address
C.    egress interface
D.    ingress interface
E.    destination IP address
F.    IP next-hop

Answer: ADE

QUESTION 182
What are three factors a network administrator must consider before implementing Netflow in the network? (Choose three.)

A.    CPU utilization
B.    where Netflow data will be sent
C.    number of devices exporting Netflow data
D.    port availability
E.    SNMP version
F.    WAN encapsulation

Answer: ABC

QUESTION 183
Which two statements about the OSPF Router ID are true? (Choose two.)

A.    It identifies the source of a Type 1 LSA.
B.    It should be the same on all routers in an OSPF routing instance.
C.    By default, the lowest IP address on the router becomes the OSPF Router ID.
D.    The router automatically chooses the IP address of a loopback as the OSPF Router ID.
E.    It is created using the MAC Address of the loopback interface.

Answer: AD

QUESTION 184
What parameter can be different on ports within an EtherChannel?

A.    speed
B.    DTP negotiation settings
C.    trunk encapsulation
D.    duplex

Answer: B

QUESTION 185
What are two benefits of using a single OSPF area network design? (Choose two.)

A.    It is less CPU intensive for routers in the single area.
B.    It reduces the types of LSAs that are generated.
C.    It removes the need for virtual links.
D.    It increases LSA response times.
E.    It reduces the number of required OSPF neighbor adjacencies.

Answer: BC

QUESTION 186
What are two enhancements that OSPFv3 supports over OSPFv2? (Choose two.)

A.    It requires the use of ARP.
B.    It can support multiple IPv6 subnets on a single link.
C.    It supports up to 2 instances of OSPFv3 over a common link.
D.    It routes over links rather than over networks.

Answer: BD

QUESTION 187
When a router undergoes the exchange protocol within OSPF, in what order does it pass through each state?

A.    exstart state > loading state > exchange state > full state
B.    exstart state > exchange state > loading state > full state
C.    exstart state > full state > loading state > exchange state
D.    loading state > exchange state > full state > exstart state

Answer: B

QUESTION 188
A network administrator creates a layer 3 EtherChannel, bundling four interfaces into channel group 1. On what interface is the IP address configured?

A.    the port-channel 1 interface
B.    the highest number member interface
C.    all member interfaces
D.    the lowest number member interface

Answer: A

QUESTION 189
What command sequence will configure a router to run OSPF and add network 10.1.1.0 /24 to area 0?

A.    router ospf area 0
network 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 area 0
B.    router ospf
network 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.255
C.    router ospf 1
network 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
D.    router ospf area 0
network 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
E.    router ospf
network 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 area 0
F.    router ospf 1
network 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.255

Answer: C

QUESTION 190
What OSPF command, when configured, will include all interfaces into area 0?

A.    network 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 area 0
B.    network 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 area 0
C.    network 255.255.255.255 0.0.0.0 area 0
D.    network all-interfaces area 0

Answer: A

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QUESTION 171
What command instructs the device to timestamp Syslog debug messages in milliseconds?

A.    service timestamps log datetime localtime
B.    service timestamps debug datetime msec
C.    service timestamps debug datetime localtime
D.    service timestamps log datetime msec

Answer: B

QUESTION 172
What are three components that comprise the SNMP framework? (Choose three.)

A.    MIB
B.    agent
C.    set
D.    AES
E.    supervisor
F.    manager

Answer: ABF

QUESTION 173
What are three components that comprise the SNMP framework? (Choose three.)

A.    MIB
B.    agent
C.    set
D.    AES
E.    supervisor
F.    manager

Answer: ABF

QUESTION 174
What SNMP message alerts the manager to a condition on the network?

A.    response
B.    get
C.    trap
D.    capture

Answer: C

QUESTION 175
What authentication type is used by SNMPv2?

A.    HMAC-MD5
B.    HMAC-SHA
C.    CBC-DES
D.    community strings

Answer: D

QUESTION 176
Which three statements about the features of SNMPv2 and SNMPv3 are true? (Choose three.)

A.    SNMPv3 enhanced SNMPv2 security features.
B.    SNMPv3 added the Inform protocol message to SNMP.
C.    SNMPv2 added the Inform protocol message to SNMP.
D.    SNMPv3 added the GetBulk protocol messages to SNMP.
E.    SNMPv2 added the GetBulk protocol message to SNMP.
F.    SNMPv2 added the GetNext protocol message to SNMP.

Answer: ACE

QUESTION 177
What are three reasons to collect Netflow data on a company network? (Choose three.)

A.    To identify applications causing congestion.
B.    To authorize user network access.
C.    To report and alert link up / down instances.
D.    To diagnose slow network performance, bandwidth hogs, and bandwidth utilization.
E.    To detect suboptimal routing in the network.
F.    To confirm the appropriate amount of bandwidth that has been allocated to each Class of Service.

Answer: ADF

QUESTION 178
What Netflow component can be applied to an interface to track IPv4 traffic?

A.    flow monitor
B.    flow record
C.    flow sampler
D.    flow exporter

Answer: A

QUESTION 179
What Cisco IOS feature can be enabled to pinpoint an application that is causing slow network performance?

A.    SNMP
B.    Netflow
C.    WCCP
D.    IP SLA

Answer: B

QUESTION 180
What command visualizes the general NetFlow data on the command line?

A.    show ip flow export
B.    show ip flow top-talkers
C.    show ip cache flow
D.    show mls sampling
E.    show mls netflow ip

Answer: C

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QUESTION 161
Hotspot Question

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Which will fix the issue and allow ONLY ping to work while keeping telnet disabled?

A.    Correctly assign an IP address to interface fa0/1.
B.    Change the ip access-group command on fa0/0 from “in* to “our.
C.    Remove access-group 106 in from interface fa0/0 and add access-group 115 in.
D.    Remove access-group 102 out from interface s0/0/0 and add access-group 114 in
E.    Remove access-group 106 in from interface fa0/0 and add access-group 104 in.

Answer: E
Explanation:
Let’s have a look at the access list 104:

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The question does not ask about ftp traffic so we don’t care about the two first lines. The 3rd line denies all telnet traffic and the 4th line allows icmp traffic to be sent (ping). Remember that the access list 104 is applied on the inbound direction so the 5th line “access-list 104 deny icmp any any echo-reply” will not affect our icmp traffic because the “echo-reply” message will be sent over the outbound direction.

QUESTION 162
Hotspot Question

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What would be the effect of issuing the command ip access-group 114 in to the fa0/0 interface?

A.    Attempts to telnet to the router would fail.
B.    It would allow all traffic from the 10.4.4.0 network.
C.    IP traffic would be passed through the interface but TCP and UDP traffic would not.
D.    Routing protocol updates for the 10.4.4.0 network would not be accepted from the fa0/0 interface.

Answer: B
Explanation:
From the output of access-list 114: access-list 114 permit ip 10.4.4.0 0.0.0.255 any we can easily understand that this access list allows all traffic (ip) from 10.4.4.0/24 network

QUESTION 163
Hotspot Question

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What would be the effect of Issuing the command ip access-group 115 in on the s0/0/1 interface?

A.    No host could connect to RouterC through s0/0/1.
B.    Telnet and ping would work but routing updates would fail.
C.    FTP, FTP-DATA, echo, and www would work but telnet would fail.
D.    Only traffic from the 10.4.4.0 network would pass through the interface.

Answer: A
Explanation:
First let’s see what was configured on interface S0/0/1:

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QUESTION 164
Lab Simulation Question – NAT-2
A network associate is configuring a router for the Weaver company to provide internet access. The ISP has provided the company six public IP addresses of 198.18.184.105 – 198.18.184.110. The company has 14 hosts that need to access the internet simultaneously. The hosts in the company LAN have been assigned private space addresses in the range of 192.168.100.17 – 192.168.100.30.

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The following have already been configured on the router:
The basic router configuration
The appropriate interfaces have been configured for NAT inside and NAT outside
The appropriate static routes have also been configured (since the company will be a stub network, no routing protocol will be required.)
All passwords have been temporarily set to “cisco”
The task is to complete the NAT configuration using all IP addresses assigned by the ISP to provide internet access for the hosts in the weaver LAN. Functionality can be tested by clicking on the host provided for testing.
Configuration information:
Router name    –    Weaver
Inside global addresses    –    198.18.184.105 – 198.18.184.110 /29
Inside local addresses    –    192.168.100.17 – 192.168.100.30 /28
Number of inside hosts    –    14
Answer:
Step 1: Router Name
Router>enable
Router#configure terminal
Router(config)#hostname Weaver
Weaver(config)#
Step 2: NAT Configuration
Weaver(config)#access-list 10 permit 192.168.100.16 0.0.0.15
Weaver(config)#ip nat pool  mynatpool 198.18.184.105 198.18.184.110 netmask 255.255.255.248
Weaver(config)#ip nat inside source list 10 pool mynatpool overload
Weaver(config)#end
Step 3: Save Configuration
Weaver#copy run start
Verification:
We can verify the answer by pinging the ISP IP Address (192.0.2.114) from Host for testing.
Click “Host for testing”
In command prompt, type “ping 192.0.2.114”. If ping succeeded then the NAT is working properly.
Screen Shots:

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QUESTION 165
In a switched environment, what does the IEEE 802.1Q standard describe?

A.    the operation of VTP
B.    a method of VLAN trunking
C.    an approach to wireless LAN communication
D.    the process for root bridge selection
E.    VLAN pruning

Answer: B
Explanation:
A broadcast domain must sometimes exist on more than one switch in the network. To accomplish this, one switch must send frames to another switch and indicate which VLAN a particular frame belongs to. On Cisco switches, a trunk link is created to accomplish this VLAN identification. ISL and IEEE 802.1Q are different methods of putting a VLAN identifier in a Layer 2 frame. The IEEE 802.1Q protocol interconnects VLANs between multiple switches, routers, and servers. With 802.1Q, a network administrator can define a VLAN topology to span multiple physical devices.
Cisco switches support IEEE 802.1Q for FastEthernet and Gigabit Ethernet interfaces. An 802.1Q trunk link provides VLAN identification by adding a 4-byte tag to an Ethernet Frame as it leaves a trunk port.

QUESTION 166
What are three benefits of GLBP? (Choose three.)

A.    GLBP supports up to eight virtual forwarders per GLBP group.
B.    GLBP supports clear text and MD5 password authentication between GLBP group members.
C.    GLBP is an open source standardized protocol that can be used with multiple vendors.
D.    GLBP supports up to 1024 virtual routers.
E.    GLBP can load share traffic across a maximum of four routers.
F.    GLBP elects two AVGs and two standby AVGs for redundancy.

Answer: BDE

QUESTION 167
Which three statements about HSRP operation are true? (Choose three.)

A.    The virtual IP address and virtual MA+K44C address are active on the HSRP Master router.
B.    The HSRP default timers are a 3 second hello interval and a 10 second dead interval.
C.    HSRP supports only clear-text authentication.
D.    The HSRP virtual IP address must be on a different subnet than the routers’ interfaces on the same LAN.
E.    The HSRP virtual IP address must be the same as one of the router’s interface addresses on the LAN.
F.    HSRP supports up to 255 groups per interface, enabling an administrative form of load balancing.

Answer: ABF

QUESTION 168
Which three statements about Syslog utilization are true? (Choose three.)

A.    Utilizing Syslog improves network performance.
B.    The Syslog server automatically notifies the network administrator of network problems.
C.    A Syslog server provides the storage space necessary to store log files without using router disk space.
D.    There are more Syslog messages available within Cisco IOS than there are comparable SNMP trap messages.
E.    Enabling Syslog on a router automatically enables NTP for accurate time stamping.
F.    A Syslog server helps in aggregation of logs and alerts.

Answer: CDF

QUESTION 169
A network administrator enters the following command on a router: logging trap 3. What are three message types that will be sent to the Syslog server? (Choose three.)

A.    informational
B.    emergency
C.    warning
D.    critical
E.    debug
F.    error

Answer: BDF

QUESTION 170
What is the default Syslog facility level?

A.    local4
B.    local5
C.    local6
D.    local7

Answer: D

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QUESTION 151
Drag and Drop Question

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Answer:

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QUESTION 152
Drag and Drop Question

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Answer:

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QUESTION 153
Drag and Drop Question

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Answer:

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QUESTION 154
Drag and Drop Question

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Answer:

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QUESTION 155
Drag and Drop Question

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Answer:

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QUESTION 156
Drag and Drop Question

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QUESTION 157
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QUESTION 158
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QUESTION 159
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QUESTION 160
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QUESTION 141
Which command enables IPv6 forwarding on a Cisco router?

A.    ipv6 local
B.    ipv6 host
C.    ipv6 unicast-routing
D.    ipv6 neighbor

Answer: C
Explanation:
to enable IPv6 routing on the Cisco router use the following command:
ipv6 unicast-routing
If this command is not recognized, your version of IOS does not support IPv6.

QUESTION 142
Which command encrypts all plaintext passwords?

A.    Router# service password-encryption
B.    Router(config)# password-encryption
C.    Router(config)# service password-encryption
D.    Router# password-encryption

Answer: C
Explanation:
The “service password-encryption” command allows you to encrypt all passwords on your router so they can not be easily guessed from your running-config. This command uses a very weak
encryption because the router has to be very quickly decode the passwords for its operation.
It is meant to prevent someone from looking over your shoulder and seeing the password, that is all. This is configured in global configuration mode.

QUESTION 143
You have been asked to come up with a subnet mask that will allow all three web servers to be on the same network while providing the maximum number of subnets. Which network address and subnet mask meet this requirement?

A.    192.168.252.0 255.255.255.252
B.    192.168.252.8 255.255.255.248
C.    192.168.252.8 255.255.255.252
D.    192.168.252.16 255.255.255.240
E.    192.168.252.16 255.255.255.252

Answer: B
Explanation:
A subnet mask of 255.255.255.248 will allow for up to 6 hosts to reside in this network. A subnet mask of 255.255.255.252 will allow for only 2 usable IP addresses, since we can not use the network or broadcast address.

QUESTION 144
Given an IP address 172.16.28.252 with a subnet mask of 255.255.240.0, what is the correct network address?

A.    172.16.16.0
B.    172.16.0.0
C.    172.16.24.0
D.    172.16.28.0

Answer: A
Explanation:
For this example, the network range is 172.16.16.1 – 172.16.31.254, the network address is 172.16.16.0 and the broadcast IP address is 172.16.31.255.

QUESTION 145
Which IPv6 address is the equivalent of the IPv4 interface loopback address 127.0.0.1?

A.    ::1
B.    ::
C.    2000::/3
D.    0::/10

Answer: A
Explanation:
In IPv6 the loopback address is written as,
This is a 128bit number, with the first 127 bits being ‘0’ and the 128th bit being ‘1’. It’s just a single address, so could also be written as ::1/128.

QUESTION 146
You are working in a data center environment and are assigned the address range 10.188.31.0/23. You are asked to develop an IP addressing plan to allow the maximum number of subnets with as many as 30 hosts each. Which IP address range meets these requirements?

A.    10.188.31.0/26
B.    10.188.31.0/25
C.    10.188.31.0/28
D.    10.188.31.0/27
E.    10.188.31.0/29

Answer: D
Explanation:
Each subnet has 30 hosts < 32 = 25 so we need a subnet mask which has at least 5 bit 0s -> /27. Also the question requires the maximum number of subnets (which minimum the number of hosts- per-subnet) so /27 is the best choice -> .

QUESTION 147
Which parameter or parameters are used to calculate OSPF cost in Cisco routers?

A.    Bandwidth
B.    Bandwidth and Delay
C.    Bandwidth, Delay, and MTU
D.    Bandwidth, MTU, Reliability, Delay, and Load

Answer: A
Explanation:
The well-known formula to calculate OSPF cost is Cost = 108 / Bandwidth

QUESTION 148
Why do large OSPF networks use a hierarchical design? (Choose three.)

A.    to decrease latency by increasing bandwidth
B.    to reduce routing overhead
C.    to speed up convergence
D.    to confine network instability to single areas of the network
E.    to reduce the complexity of router configuration
F.    to lower costs by replacing routers with distribution layer switches

Answer: BCD
Explanation:
OSPF implements a two-tier hierarchical routing model that uses a core or backbone tier known as area zero (0). Attached to that backbone via area border routers (ABRs) are a number of secondary tier areas. The hierarchical approach is used to achieve the following:
Rapid convergence because of link and/or switch failures
Deterministic traffic recovery
Scalable and manageable routing hierarchy, reduced routing overhead.

QUESTION 149
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QUESTION 150
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QUESTION 131
Refer to the exhibit. When running OSPF, what would cause router A not to form an adjacency with router B?

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A.    The loopback addresses are on different subnets.
B.    The values of the dead timers on the routers are different.
C.    Route summarization is enabled on both routers.
D.    The process identifier on router A is different than the process identifier on router B.

Answer: B
Explanation:
To form an adjacency (become neighbor), router A & B must have the same Hello interval, Dead interval and AREA number.s

QUESTION 132
Which two of these statements are true of IPv6 address representation? (Choose two.)

A.    There are four types of IPv6 addresses: unicast, multicast, anycast, and broadcast.
B.    A single interface may be assigned multiple IPv6 addresses of any type.
C.    Every IPv6 interface contains at least one loopback address.
D.    The first 64 bits represent the dynamically created interface ID.
E.    Leading zeros in an IPv6 16 bit hexadecimal field are mandatory.

Answer: BC
Explanation:
Leading zeros in IPv6 are optional do that 05C7 equals 5C7 and 0000 equals 0 -> D is not correct.

QUESTION 133
Which set of commands is recommended to prevent the use of a hub in the access layer?

A.    switch(config-if)#switchport mode trunk
switch(config-if)#switchport port-security maximum 1
B.    switch(config-if)#switchport mode trunk
switch(config-if)#switchport port-security mac-address 1
C.    switch(config-if)#switchport mode access
switch(config-if)#switchport port-security maximum 1
D.    switch(config-if)#switchport mode access
switch(config-if)#switchport port-security mac-address 1

Answer: C
Explanation:
This question is to examine the layer 2 security configuration. In order to satisfy the requirements of this question, you should perform the following configurations in the interface mode:
First, configure the interface mode as the access mode Second, enable the port security and set the maximum number of connections to 1.

QUESTION 134
What is known as “one-to-nearest” addressing in IPv6?

A.    global unicast
B.    anycast
C.    multicast
D.    unspecified address

Answer: B
Explanation:
IPv6 Anycast addresses are used for one-to-nearest communication, meaning an Anycast address is used by a device to send data to one specific recipient (interface) that is the closest out of a group of recipients (interfaces).

QUESTION 135
Refer to the exhibit. What is the most appropriate summarization for these routes?

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A.    10.0.0.0 /21
B.    10.0.0.0 /22
C.    10.0.0.0 /23
D.    10.0.0.0 /24

Answer: B
Explanation:
The 10.0.0.0/22 subnet mask will include the 10.0.0.0, 10.0.1.0, 10.0.2.0, and 10.0.3.0 networks, and only those four networks.

QUESTION 136
What is the difference between a CSU/DSU and a modem?

A.    A CSU/DSU converts analog signals from a router to a leased line; a modem converts analog signals
from a router to a leased line.
B.    A CSU/DSU converts analog signals from a router to a phone line; a modem converts digital signals
from a router to a leased line.
C.    A CSU/DSU converts digital signals from a router to a phone line; a modem converts analog signals
from a router to a phone line.
D.    A CSU/DSU converts digital signals from a router to a leased line; a modem converts digital signals
from a router to a phone line.

Answer: D
Explanation:
CSU/DSU is used to convert digital signals from a router to a network circuit such as a T1, while a modem is used to convert digital signals over a regular POTS line.

QUESTION 137
Which two are features of IPv6? (Choose two.)

A.    anycast
B.    broadcast
C.    multicast
D.    podcast
E.    allcast

Answer: AC
Explanation:
IPv6 addresses are classified by the primary addressing and routing methodologies common in networkinG. unicast addressing, anycast addressing, and multicast addressing.

QUESTION 138
Which two are advantages of static routing when compared to dynamic routing? (Choose two.)

A.    Configuration complexity decreases as network size increases.
B.    Security increases because only the network administrator may change the routing table.
C.    Route summarization is computed automatically by the router.
D.    Routing tables adapt automatically to topology changes.
E.    An efficient algorithm is used to build routing tables, using automatic updates.
F.    Routing updates are automatically sent to neighbors.
G.    Routing traffic load is reduced when used in stub network links.

Answer: BG
Explanation:
Since static routing is a manual process, it can be argued that it is more secure (and more prone to human errors) since the network administrator will need to make changes to the routing table directly. Also, in stub networks where there is only a single uplink connection, the load is reduced as stub routers just need a single static default route, instead of many routes that all have the same next hop IP address.

QUESTION 139
A network administrator needs to configure port security on a switch. Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)

A.    The network administrator can apply port security to dynamic access ports.
B.    The network administrator can apply port security to EtherChannels.
C.    When dynamic MAC address learning is enabled on an interface, the switch can learn new addresses,
up to the maximum defined.
D.    The sticky learning feature allows the addition of dynamically learned addresses to the running configuration.
E.    The network administrator can configure static secure or sticky secure MAC addresses in the voice VLAN.

Answer: CD
Explanation:
Follow these guidelines when configuring port security:
+ Port security can only be configured on static access ports, trunk ports, or 802.1Q tunnel ports.
+ A secure port cannot be a dynamic access port.
+ A secure port cannot be a destination port for Switched Port Analyzer (SPAN). + A secure port cannot belong to a Fast EtherChannel or Gigabit EtherChannel port group. + You cannot configure static secure or sticky secure MAC addresses on a voice VLAN. + When you enable port security on an interface that is also configured with a voice VLAN, you must set the maximum allowed secure addresses on the port to at least two. + If any type of port security is enabled on the access VLAN, dynamic port security is automatically enabled on the voice VLAN.
+ When a voice VLAN is configured on a secure port that is also configured as a sticky secure port, all addresses seen on the voice VLAN are learned as dynamic secure addresses, and all addresses seen on the access VLAN (to which the port belongs) are learned as sticky secure addresses.
+ The switch does not support port security aging of sticky secure MAC addresses. + The protect and restrict options cannot be simultaneously enabled on an interface.
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/switches/lan/catalyst3550/software/release/12.1_19_ea1/config uration/guide/swtrafc.html

QUESTION 140
What are three features of the IPv6 protocol? (Choose three.)

A.    optional IPsec
B.    autoconfiguration
C.    no broadcasts
D.    complicated header
E.    plug-and-play
F.    checksums

Answer: BCE
Explanation:
An important feature of IPv6 is that it allows plug and play option to the network devices by allowing them to configure themselves independently. It is possible to plug a node into an IPv6 network without requiring any human intervention. This feature was critical to allow network connectivity to an increasing number of mobile devices. This is accomplished by autoconfiguration.
IPv6 does not implement traditional IP broadcast, i.e. the transmission of a packet to all hosts on the attached link using a special broadcast address, and therefore does not define broadcast addresses. In IPv6, the same result can be achieved by sending a packet to the link-local all nodes multicast group at address ff02::1, which is analogous to IPv4 multicast to address 224.0.0.1.

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QUESTION 121
What are two characteristics of Frame Relay point-to-point subinterfaces? (Choose two.)

A.    They create split-horizon issues.
B.    They require a unique subnet within a routing domain.
C.    They emulate leased lines.
D.    They are ideal for full-mesh topologies.
E.    They require the use of NBMA options when using OSPF.

Answer: BC
Explanation:
Subinterfaces are used for point to point frame relay connections, emulating virtual point to point leased lines. Each subinterface requires a unique IP address/subnet. Remember, you can not assign multiple interfaces in a router that belong to the same IP subnet.

QUESTION 122
What command is used to verify the DLCI destination address in a Frame Relay static configuration?

A.    show frame-relay pvc
B.    show frame-relay lmi
C.    show frame-relay map
D.    show frame relay end-to-end

Answer: C
Explanation:
Sample “show frame-relay map” output:
R1#sh frame mapSerial0/0 (up): ip 10.4.4.1 dlci 401(0x191,0x6410), dynamic,broadcast,, status defined, activeSerial0/0 (up): ip 10.4.4.3 dlci 403(0x193,0x6430), dynamic,broadcast,, status defined, activeSerial0/0 (up): ip 10.4.4.4 dlci 401(0x191,0x6410), static,CISCO, status defined, active

QUESTION 123
What is the purpose of Inverse ARP?

A.    to map a known IP address to a MAC address
B.    to map a known DLCI to a MAC address
C.    to map a known MAC address to an IP address
D.    to map a known DLCI to an IP address
E.    to map a known IP address to a SPID
F.    to map a known SPID to a MAC address

Answer: D
Explanation:
Dynamic address mapping relies on the Frame Relay Inverse Address Resolution Protocol (Inverse ARP), defined by RFC 1293, to resolve a next hop network protocol (IP) address to a local DLCI value. The Frame Relay router sends out Inverse ARP requests on its Frame Relay PVC to discover the protocol address of the remote device connected to the Frame Relay network. The responses to the Inverse ARP requests are used to populate an address-to-DLCI mapping table on the Frame Relay router or access server. The router builds and maintains this address-to- DLCI mapping table, which contains all resolved Inverse ARP requests, including both dynamic and static mapping entries.

QUESTION 124
How does using the service password-encryption command on a router provide additional security?

A.    by encrypting all passwords passing through the router
B.    by encrypting passwords in the plain text configuration file
C.    by requiring entry of encrypted passwords for access to the device
D.    by configuring an MD5 encrypted key to be used by routing protocols to validate routing exchanges
E.    by automatically suggesting encrypted passwords for use in configuring the router

Answer: B
Explanation:
By using this command, all the (current and future) passwords are encrypted. This command is primarily useful for keeping unauthorized individuals from viewing your password in your configuration file

QUESTION 125
Refer to the exhibit. Switch port FastEthernet 0/24 on ALSwitch1 will be used to create an IEEE 802.1Q-compliant trunk to another switch. Based on the output shown, what is the reason the trunk does not form, even though the proper cabling has been attached?

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A.    VLANs have not been created yet.
B.    An IP address must be configured for the port.
C.    The port is currently configured for access mode.
D.    The correct encapsulation type has not been configured.
E.    The no shutdown command has not been entered for the port.

Answer: C
Explanation:
According to the output shown the switchport (layer 2 Switching) is enabled and the port is in access mode. To make a trunk link the port should configured as a trunk port, not an access port, by using the following command: (Config-if)#switchport mode trunk

QUESTION 126
A router has learned three possible routes that could be used to reach a destination network. One route is from EIGRP and has a composite metric of 20514560. Another route is from OSPF with a metric of 782. The last is from RIPv2 and has a metric of 4. Which route or routes will the router install in the routing table?

A.    the OSPF route
B.    the EIGRP route
C.    the RIPv2 route
D.    all three routes
E.    the OSPF and RIPv2 routes

Answer: B
Explanation:
When one route is advertised by more than one routing protocol, the router will choose to use the routing protocol which has lowest Administrative Distance. The Administrative Distances of popular routing protocols are listed below:

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QUESTION 127
A network administrator needs to allow only one Telnet connection to a router. For anyone viewing the configuration and issuing the show run command, the password for Telnet access should be encrypted. Which set of commands will accomplish this task?

A.    service password-encryption
access-list 1 permit 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.255
line vty 0 4
login
password cisco
access-class 1
B.    enable password secret
line vty 0
login
password cisco
C.    service password-encryption
line vty 1
login
password cisco
D.    service password-encryption
line vty 0 4
login
password cisco

Answer: C
Explanation:
Only one VTY connection is allowed which is exactly what’s requested.
Incorrect answer: command.
line vty0 4
would enable all 5 vty connections.

QUESTION 128
What is the effect of using the service password-encryption command?

A.    Only the enable password will be encrypted.
B.    Only the enable secret password will be encrypted.
C.    Only passwords configured after the command has been entered will be encrypted.
D.    It will encrypt the secret password and remove the enable secret password from the configuration.
E.    It will encrypt all current and future passwords.

Answer: E
Explanation:
Enable vty, console, AUX passwords are configured on the Cisco device. Use the show run command to show most passwords in clear text. If the service password-encryption is used, all the passwords are encrypted. As a result, the security of device access is improved.

QUESTION 129
Refer to the exhibit. What is the effect of the configuration that is shown?

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A.    It configures SSH globally for all logins.
B.    It tells the router or switch to try to establish an SSh connection first and if that fails to use Telnet.
C.    It configures the virtual terminal lines with the password 030752180500.
D.    It configures a Cisco network device to use the SSH protocol on incoming communications via the
virtual terminal ports.
E.    It allows seven failed login attempts before the VTY lines are temporarily shutdown.

Answer: D
Explanation:
Secure Shell (SSH) is a protocol which provides a secure remote access connection to network devices. Communication between the client and server is encrypted in both SSH version 1 and SSH version 2. If you want to prevent non-SSH connections, add the “transport input ssh” command under the lines to limit the router to SSH connections only. Straight (non-SSH) Telnets are refused.
Reference: www.cisco.com/warp/public/707/ssh.shtml

QUESTION 130
Refer to the exhibit. What is the reason that the interface status is “administratively down, line protocol down”?

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A.    There is no encapsulation type configured.
B.    There is a mismatch in encapsulation types.
C.    The interface is not receiving any keepalives.
D.    The interface has been configured with the shutdown command.
E.    The interface needs to be configured as a DTE device.
F.    The wrong type of cable is connected to the interface.

Answer: D
Explanation:
Interface can be enabled or disabled with shutdown/no shutdown command. If you interface is down, it will display administratively down status. You can bring up an interface having administratively down interface using no shutdown command.

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