QUESTION 111
Refer to the exhibit. What is the meaning of the term dynamic as displayed in the output of the show frame-relay map command shown?

A.    The Serial0/0 interface is passing traffic.
B.    The DLCI 100 was dynamically allocated by the router.
C.    The Serial0/0 interface acquired the IP address of 172.16.3.1 from a DHCP server.
D.    The DLCI 100 will be dynamically changed as required to adapt to changes in the Frame Relay cloud.
E.    The mapping between DLCI 100 and the end station IP address 172.16.3.1 was learned through Inverse ARP.

Answer: E
Explanation:
Inverse Address Resolution Protocol (Inverse ARP) was developed to provide a mechanism for dynamic DLCI to Layer 3 address maps. Inverse ARP works much the same way Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) works on a LAN. However, with ARP, the device knows the Layer 3 IP address and needs to know the remote data link MAC address. With Inverse ARP, the router knows the Layer 2 address which is the DLCI, but needs to know the remote Layer 3 IP address. When using dynamic address mapping, Inverse ARP requests a next-hop protocol address for each active PVC. Once the requesting router receives an Inverse ARP response, it updates its DLCI-to-Layer 3 address mapping table. Dynamic address mapping is enabled by default for all protocols enabled on a physical interface. If the Frame Relay environment supports LMI autosensing and Inverse ARP, dynamic address mapping takes place automatically. Therefore, no static address mapping is required.

QUESTION 112
A network administrator needs to configure a serial link between the main office and a remote location. The router at the remote office is a non-Cisco router. How should the network administrator configure the serial interface of the main office router to make the connection?

A.    Main(config)# interface serial 0/0
Main(config-if)# ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.252
Main(config-if)# no shut
B.    Main(config)# interface serial 0/0
Main(config-if)# ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.252
Main(config-if)# encapsulation ppp
Main(config-if)# no shut
C.    Main(config)# interface serial 0/0
Main(config-if)# ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.252
Main(config-if)# encapsulation frame-relay
Main(config-if)# authentication chap
Main(config-if)# no shut
D.    Main(config)# interface serial 0/0
Main(config-if)#ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.252
Main(config-if)#encapsulation ietf
Main(config-if)# no shut

Answer: B
Explanation:
With serial point to point links there are two options for the encapsulation. The default, HDLC, is Cisco proprietary and works only with other Cisco routers. The other option is PPP which is standards based and supported by all vendors.

QUESTION 113
What are three reasons that an organization with multiple branch offices and roaming users might implement a Cisco VPN solution instead of point-to-point WAN links? (Choose three.)

A.    reduced cost
B.    better throughput
C.    broadband incompatibility
D.    increased security
E.    scalability
F.    reduced latency

Answer: ADE
Explanation:
IPsec offer a number of advantages over point to point WAN links, particularly when multiple locations are involved. These include reduced cost, increased security since all traffic is encrypted, and increased scalability as s single WAN link can be used to connect to all locations in a VPN, where as a point to point link would need to be provisioned to each location.

QUESTION 114
Which two statistics appear in show frame-relay map output? (Choose two.)

A.    the number of BECN packets that are received by the router
B.    the value of the local DLCI
C.    the number of FECN packets that are received by the router
D.    the status of the PVC that is configured on the router
E.    the IP address of the local router

Answer: BD
Explanation:
Sample “show frame-relay map” output:
R1#sh frame mapSerial0/0 (up): ip 10.4.4.1 dlci 401(0x191,0x6410), dynamic,broadcast,, status defined, activeSerial0/0 (up): ip 10.4.4.3 dlci 403(0x193,0x6430), dynamic,broadcast,, status defined, activeSerial0/0 (up): ip 10.4.4.4 dlci 401(0x191,0x6410), static,CISCO, status defined, active

QUESTION 115
Which command allows you to verify the encapsulation type (CISCO or IETF) for a Frame Relay link?

A.    show frame-relay lmi
B.    show frame-relay map
C.    show frame-relay pvc
D.    show interfaces serial

Answer: B
Explanation:
When connecting Cisco devices with non-Cisco devices, you must use IETF4 encapsulation on both devices. Check the encapsulation type on the Cisco device with the show frame-relay map exec command.

QUESTION 116
It has become necessary to configure an existing serial interface to accept a second Frame Relay virtual circuit. Which of the following procedures are required to accomplish this task? (Choose three.)

A.    Remove the IP address from the physical interface.
B.    Encapsulate the physical interface with multipoint PPP.
C.    Create the virtual interfaces with the interface command.
D.    Configure each subinterface with its own IP address.
E.    Disable split horizon to prevent routing loops between the subinterface networks.
F.    Configure static Frame Relay map entries for each subinterface network.

Answer: ACD
Explanation:
For multiple PVC’s on a single interface, you must use subinterfaces, with each subinterface configured for each PVC. Each subinterface will then have its own IP address, and no IP address will be assigned to the main interface.

QUESTION 117
What occurs on a Frame Relay network when the CIR is exceeded?

A.    All TCP traffic is marked discard eligible.
B.    All UDP traffic is marked discard eligible and a BECN is sent.
C.    All TCP traffic is marked discard eligible and a BECN is sent.
D.    All traffic exceeding the CIR is marked discard eligible.

Answer: D
Explanation:
Committed information rate (CIR): The minimum guaranteed data transfer rate agreed to by the Frame Relay switch. Frames that are sent in excess of the CIR are marked as discard eligible (DE) which means they can be dropped if the congestion occurs within the Frame Relay network. Note: In the Frame Relay frame format, there is a bit called Discard eligible (DE) bit that is used to identify frames that are first to be dropped when the CIR is exceeded.

QUESTION 118
Which two statements about using the CHAP authentication mechanism in a PPP link are true? (Choose two.)

A.    CHAP uses a two-way handshake.
B.    CHAP uses a three-way handshake.
C.    CHAP authentication periodically occurs after link establishment.
D.    CHAP authentication passwords are sent in plaintext.
E.    CHAP authentication is performed only upon link establishment.
F.    CHAP has no protection from playback attacks.

Answer: BC
Explanation:
CHAP is an authentication scheme used by Point to Point Protocol (PPP) servers to validate the identity of remote clients. CHAP periodically verifies the identity of the client by using a three-way handshake. This happens at the time of establishing the initial link (LCP), and may happen again at any time afterwards. The verification is based on a shared secret (such as the client user’s password).

QUESTION 119
What is the result of issuing the frame-relay map ip 192.168.1.2 202 broadcast command?

A.    defines the destination IP address that is used in all broadcast packets on DCLI 202
B.    defines the source IP address that is used in all broadcast packets on DCLI 202
C.    defines the DLCI on which packets from the 192.168.1.2 IP address are received
D.    defines the DLCI that is used for all packets that are sent to the 192.168.1.2 IP address

Answer: D
Explanation:
This command identifies the DLCI that should be used for all packets destined to the 192.168.1.2 address. In this case, DLCI 202 should be used.

QUESTION 120
Which PPP subprotocol negotiates authentication options?

A.    NCP
B.    ISDN
C.    SLIP
D.    LCP
E.    DLCI

Answer: D
Explanation:
The PPP Link Control Protocol (LCP) is documented in RFC 1661. LPC negotiates link and PPP parameters to dynamically configure the data link layer of a PPP connection. Common LCP options include the PPP MRU, the authentication protocol, compression of PPP header fields, callback, and multilink options.

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QUESTION 101
Which statement is correct regarding the operation of DHCP?

A.    A DHCP client uses a ping to detect address conflicts.
B.    A DHCP server uses a gratuitous ARP to detect DHCP clients.
C.    A DHCP client uses a gratuitous ARP to detect a DHCP server.
D.    If an address conflict is detected, the address is removed from the pool and an administrator must
resolve the conflict.
E.    If an address conflict is detected, the address is removed from the pool for an amount of time configurable
by the administrator.
F.    If an address conflict is detected, the address is removed from the pool and will not be reused until the
server is rebooted.

Answer: D
Explanation:
An address conflict occurs when two hosts use the same IP address. During address assignment, DHCP checks for conflicts using ping and gratuitous ARP. If a conflict is detected, the address is removed from the pool. The address will not be assigned until the administrator resolves the conflict.
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/ios/12_1/iproute/configuration/guide/1cddhcp.html

QUESTION 102
Refer to the exhibit. Statements A, B, C, and D of ACL 10 have been entered in the shown order and applied to interface E0 inbound, to prevent all hosts (except those whose addresses are the first and last IP of subnet 172.21.1.128/28) from accessing the network. But as is, the ACL does not restrict anyone from the network. How can the ACL statements be re-arranged so that the system works as intended?

A.    ACDB
B.    BADC
C.    DBAC
D.    CDBA

Answer: D
Explanation:
Routers go line by line through an access list until a match is found and then will not look any further, even if a more specific of better match is found later on in the access list. So, it it best to begin with the most specific entries first, in this cast the two hosts in line C and D. Then, include the subnet (B) and then finally the rest of the traffic (A).

QUESTION 103
The output of the show frame-relay pvc command shows “PVC STATUS = INACTIVE”. What does this mean?

A.    The PVC is configured correctly and is operating normally, but no data packets have been detected
for more than five minutes.
B.    The PVC is configured correctly, is operating normally, and is no longer actively seeking the address
of the remote router.
C.    The PVC is configured correctly, is operating normally, and is waiting for interesting traffic to trigger
a call to the remote router.
D.    The PVC is configured correctly on the local switch, but there is a problem on the remote end of the PVC.
E.    The PVC is not configured on the local switch.

Answer: D
Explanation:
The PVC STATUS displays the status of the PVC. The DCE device creates and sends the report to the DTE devices. There are 4 statuses:
+ ACTIVE: the PVC is operational and can transmit data + INACTIVE: the connection from the local router to the switch is working, but the connection to the remote router is not available
+ DELETED: the PVC is not present and no LMI information is being received from the Frame Relay switch
+ STATIC: the Local Management Interface (LMI) mechanism on the interface is disabled (by using the “no keepalive” command). This status is rarely seen so it is ignored in some books.

QUESTION 104
Which command is used to enable CHAP authentication, with PAP as the fallback method, on a serial interface?

A.    Router(config-if)# ppp authentication chap fallback ppp
B.    Router(config-if)# ppp authentication chap pap
C.    Router(config-if)# authentication ppp chap fallback ppp
D.    Router(config-if)# authentication ppp chap pap

Answer: B
Explanation:
This command tells the router to first use CHAP and then go to PAP if CHAP isn’t available.

QUESTION 105
Which protocol is an open standard protocol framework that is commonly used in VPNs, to provide secure end-to-end communications?

A.    RSA
B.    L2TP
C.    IPsec
D.    PPTP

Answer: C
Explanation:
IPSec is a framework of open standards that provides data confidentiality, data integrity, and data authentication between participating peers at the IP layer. IPSec can be used to protect one or more data flows between IPSec peers.

QUESTION 106
At which layer of the OSI model does PPP perform?

A.    Layer 2
B.    Layer 3
C.    Layer 4
D.    Layer 5

Answer: A
Explanation:
The Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP) provides a standard method for transporting multi-protocol datagrams over point-to-point links. PPP was originally emerged as an encapsulation protocol for transporting IP traffic between two peers. It is a data link layer protocol (layer 2 in the OSI model )

QUESTION 107
The command frame-relay map ip 10.121.16.8 102 broadcast was entered on the router. Which of the following statements is true concerning this command?

A.    This command should be executed from the global configuration mode.
B.    The IP address 10.121.16.8 is the local router port used to forward data.
C.    102 is the remote DLCI that will receive the information.
D.    This command is required for all Frame Relay configurations.
E.    The broadcast option allows packets, such as RIP updates, to be forwarded across the PVC.

Answer: E
Explanation:
Broadcast is added to the configurations of the frame relay, so the PVC supports broadcast, allowing the routing protocol updates that use the broadcast update mechanism to be forwarded across itself.

QUESTION 108
Which two options are valid WAN connectivity methods? (Choose two.)

A.    PPP
B.    WAP
C.    DSL
D.    L2TPv3
E.    Ethernet

Answer: AC
Explanation:
The Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP) provides a standard method for transporting multi-protocol datagrams over point-to-point links. PPP was originally emerged as an encapsulation protocol for transporting IP traffic between two peers. It is a data link layer protocol used for WAN connections.
DSL is also considered a WAN connection, as it can be used to connect networks, typically when used with VPN technology.

QUESTION 109
Which Layer 2 protocol encapsulation type supports synchronous and asynchronous circuits and has built-in security mechanisms?

A.    HDLC
B.    PPP
C.    X.25
D.    Frame Relay

Answer: B
Explanation:
PPP: Provides router-to-router and host-to-network connections over synchronous and asynchronous circuits. PPP was designed to work with several network layer protocols, including IP. PPP also has built-in security mechanisms, such as Password Authentication Protocol (PAP) and Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol (CHAP).

QUESTION 110
Which encapsulation type is a Frame Relay encapsulation type that is supported by Cisco routers?

A.    IETF
B.    ANSI Annex D
C.    Q9333-A Annex A
D.    HDLC

Answer: A
Explanation:
Cisco supports two Frame Relay encapsulation types: the Cisco encapsulation and the IETF Frame Relay encapsulation, which is in conformance with RFC 1490 and RFC 2427. The former is often used to connect two Cisco routers while the latter is used to connect a Cisco router to a non-Cisco router. You can test with your Cisco router when typing the command Router(config-if)# encapsulation frame-relay ? on a WAN link. Below is the output of this command (notice Cisco is the default encapsulation so it is not listed here, just press Enter to use it).

Note: Three LMI options are supported by Cisco routers are ansi, Cisco, and Q933a. They represent the ANSI Annex D, Cisco, and ITU Q933-A (Annex A) LMI types, respectively. HDLC is a WAN protocol same as Frame-Relay and PPP so it is not a Frame Relay encapsulation type.

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QUESTION 91
Which Cisco Catalyst feature automatically disables the port in an operational PortFast upon receipt of a BPDU?

A.    BackboneFast
B.    UplinkFast
C.    Root Guard
D.    BPDU Guard
E.    BPDU Filter

Answer: D
Explanation:
We only enable PortFast feature on access ports (ports connected to end stations). But if someone does not know he can accidentally plug that port to another switch and a loop may occur when BPDUs are being transmitted and received on these ports. With BPDU Guard, when a PortFast receives a BPDU, it will be shut down to prevent a loop.

QUESTION 92
When you are troubleshooting an ACL issue on a router, which command would you use to verify which interfaces are affected by the ACL?

A.    show ip access-lists
B.    show access-lists
C.    show interface
D.    show ip interface
E.    list ip interface

Answer: D
Explanation:
Incorrect answer:
show ip access-lists does not show interfaces affected by an ACL.

QUESTION 93
Cisco Catalyst switches CAT1 and CAT2 have a connection between them using ports FA0/13. An 802.1Q trunk is configured between the two switches. On CAT1, VLAN 10 is chosen as native, but on CAT2 the native VLAN is not specified. What will happen in this scenario?

A.    802.1Q giants frames could saturate the link.
B.    VLAN 10 on CAT1 and VLAN 1 on CAT2 will send untagged frames.
C.    A native VLAN mismatch error message will appear.
D.    VLAN 10 on CAT1 and VLAN 1 on CAT2 will send tagged frames.

Answer: C
Explanation:
A “native VLAN mismatch” error will appear by CDP if there is a native VLAN mismatch on an 802.1Q link. “VLAN mismatch” can cause traffic from one vlan to leak into another vlan.

QUESTION 94
What will happen if a private IP address is assigned to a public interface connected to an ISP?

A.    Addresses in a private range will be not be routed on the Internet backbone.
B.    Only the ISP router will have the capability to access the public network.
C.    The NAT process will be used to translate this address to a valid IP address.
D.    A conflict of IP addresses happens, because other public routers can use the same range.

Answer: A
Explanation:
Private RFC 1918 IP addresses are meant to be used by organizations locally within their own network only, and can not be used globally for Internet use.

QUESTION 95
Which router IOS commands can be used to troubleshoot LAN connectivity problems? (Choose three.)

A.    ping
B.    tracert
C.    ipconfig
D.    show ip route
E.    winipcfg
F.    show interfaces

Answer: ADF
Explanation:
Ping, show ip route, and show interfaces are all valid troubleshooting IOS commands. Tracert, ipconfig, and winipcfg are PC commands, not IOS.

QUESTION 96
In which circumstance are multiple copies of the same unicast frame likely to be transmitted in a switched LAN?

A.    during high traffic periods
B.    after broken links are re-established
C.    when upper-layer protocols require high reliability
D.    in an improperly implemented redundant topology
E.    when a dual ring topology is in use

Answer: D
Explanation:
If we connect two switches via 2 or more links and do not enable STP on these switches then a loop (which creates multiple copies of the same unicast frame) will occur. It is an example of an improperly implemented redundant topology.

QUESTION 97
VLAN 3 is not yet configured on your switch. What happens if you set the switchport access vlan 3 command in interface configuration mode?

A.    The command is rejected.
B.    The port turns amber.
C.    The command is accepted and the respective VLAN is added to vlan.dat.
D.    The command is accepted and you must configure the VLAN manually.

Answer: C
Explanation:
The “switchport access vlan 3” will put that interface as belonging to VLAN 3 while also updated the VLAN database automatically to include VLAN 3.

QUESTION 98
A network administrator is troubleshooting an EIGRP problem on a router and needs to confirm the IP addresses of the devices with which the router has established adjacency. The retransmit interval and the queue counts for the adjacent routers also need to be checked. What command will display the required information?

A.    Router# show ip eigrp adjacency
B.    Router# show ip eigrp topology
C.    Router# show ip eigrp interfaces
D.    Router# show ip eigrp neighbors

Answer: D
Explanation:
Below is an example of the show ip eigrp neighbors command. The retransmit interval (Smooth Round Trip Timer ?SRTT) and the queue counts (Q count, which shows the number of queued EIGRP packets) for the adjacent routers are listed:

QUESTION 99
Which port state is introduced by Rapid-PVST?

A.    learning
B.    listening
C.    discarding
D.    forwarding

Answer: C
Explanation:
PVST+ is based on IEEE802.1D Spanning Tree Protocol (STP). But PVST+ has only 3 port states (discarding, learning and forwarding) while STP has 5 port states (blocking, listening, learning, forwarding and disabled). So discarding is a new port state in PVST+.

QUESTION 100
Refer to the exhibit. The two connected ports on the switch are not turning orange or green. What would be the most effective steps to troubleshoot this physical layer problem? (Choose three.)

A.    Ensure that the Ethernet encapsulations match on the interconnected router and switch ports.
B.    Ensure that cables A and B are straight-through cables.
C.    Ensure cable A is plugged into a trunk port.
D.    Ensure the switch has power.
E.    Reboot all of the devices.
F.    Reseat all cables.

Answer: BDF
Explanation:
The ports on the switch are not up indicating it is a layer 1 (physical) problem so we should check cable type, power and how they are plugged in.

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QUESTION 81
Which two statements about static NAT translations are true? (Choose two.)

A.    They allow connections to be initiated from the outside.
B.    They require no inside or outside interface markings because addresses are statically defined.
C.    They are always present in the NAT table.
D.    They can be configured with access lists, to allow two or more connections to be initiated from the outside.

Answer: AC
Explanation:
Static NAT is to map a single outside IP address to a single inside IP address. This is typically done to allow incoming connections from the outside (Internet) to the inside. Since these are static, they are always present in the NAT table even if they are not actively in use.

QUESTION 82
Which statement about access lists that are applied to an interface is true?

A.    You can place as many access lists as you want on any interface.
B.    You can apply only one access list on any interface.
C.    You can configure one access list, per direction, per Layer 3 protocol.
D.    You can apply multiple access lists with the same protocol or in different directions.

Answer: C
Explanation:
We can have only 1 access list per protocol, per direction and per interface. It means:
+ We can not have 2 inbound access lists on an interface + We can have 1 inbound and 1 outbound access list on an interface

QUESTION 83
Which item represents the standard IP ACL?

A.    access-list 110 permit ip any any
B.    access-list 50 deny 192.168.1.1 0.0.0.255
C.    access list 101 deny tcp any host 192.168.1.1
D.    access-list 2500 deny tcp any host 192.168.1.1 eq 22

Answer: B
Explanation:
The standard access lists are ranged from 1 to 99 and from 1300 to 1999 so only access list 50 is a standard access list.

QUESTION 84
A network administrator is configuring ACLs on a Cisco router, to allow traffic from hosts on networks 192.168.146.0, 192.168.147.0, 192.168.148.0, and 192.168.149.0 only. Which two ACL statements, when combined, would you use to accomplish this task? (Choose two.)

A.    access-list 10 permit ip 192.168.146.0 0.0.1.255
B.    access-list 10 permit ip 192.168.147.0 0.0.255.255
C.    access-list 10 permit ip 192.168.148.0 0.0.1.255
D.    access-list 10 permit ip 192.168.149.0 0.0.255.255
E.    access-list 10 permit ip 192.168.146.0 0.0.0.255
F.    access-list 10 permit ip 192.168.146.0 255.255.255.0

Answer: AC
Explanation:
access-list 10 permit ip 192.168.146.0 0.0.1.255 will include the 192.168.146.0 and 192.168.147.0 subnets, while access-list 10 permit ip 192.168.148.0 0.0.1.255 will include

QUESTION 85
What can be done to secure the virtual terminal interfaces on a router? (Choose two.)

A.    Administratively shut down the interface.
B.    Physically secure the interface.
C.    Create an access list and apply it to the virtual terminal interfaces with the access-group command.
D.    Configure a virtual terminal password and login process.
E.    Enter an access list and apply it to the virtual terminal interfaces using the access-class command.

Answer: DE
Explanation:
It is a waste to administratively shut down the interface. Moreover, someone can still access the virtual terminal interfaces via other interfaces ->
We can not physically secure a virtual interface because it is “virtual” -> To apply an access list to a virtual terminal interface we must use the “access-class” command. The “access-group” command is only used to apply an access list to a physical interface -> C is not correct.
The most simple way to secure the virtual terminal interface is to configure a username & password to prevent unauthorized login.

QUESTION 86
Which two commands correctly verify whether port security has been configured on port FastEthernet 0/12 on a switch? (Choose two.)

A.    SW1#show port-secure interface FastEthernet 0/12
B.    SW1#show switchport port-secure interface FastEthernet 0/12
C.    SW1#show running-config
D.    SW1#show port-security interface FastEthernet 0/12
E.    SW1#show switchport port-security interface FastEthernet 0/12

Answer: CD
Explanation:
We can verify whether port security has been configured by using the “show running-config” or “show port-security interface ” for more detail. An example of the output of “show port-security interface ” command is shown below:

QUESTION 87
What will be the result if the following configuration commands are implemented on a Cisco switch? Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security
Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security mac-address sticky

A.    A dynamically learned MAC address is saved in the startup-configuration file.
B.    A dynamically learned MAC address is saved in the running-configuration file.
C.    A dynamically learned MAC address is saved in the VLAN database.
D.    Statically configured MAC addresses are saved in the startup-configuration file if frames from that address
are received.
E.    Statically configured MAC addresses are saved in the running-configuration file if frames from that address
are received.

Answer: B
Explanation:
In the interface configuration mode, the command switchport port-security mac-address sticky enables sticky learning. When entering this command, the interface converts all the dynamic secure MAC addresses to sticky secure MAC addresses.

QUESTION 88
The network administrator cannot connect to Switch1 over a Telnet session, although the hosts attached to Switch1 can ping the interface Fa0/0 of the router. Given the information in the graphic and assuming that the router and Switch2 are configured properly, which of the following commands should be issued on Switch1 to correct this problem?

A.    Switch1(config)# line con0
Switch1(config-line)# password cisco
Switch1(config-line)#login
B.    Switch1(config)# interface fa0/1
Switch1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.24.3 255.255.255.0
C.    Switch1(config)# ip default-gateway 192.168.24.1
D.    Switch1(config)# interface fa0/1
Switch1(config-if)# duplex full
Switch1(config-if)# speed 100
E.    Switch1(config)# interface fa0/1
Switch1(config-if)# switchport mode trunk

Answer: C
Explanation:
Since we know hosts can reach the router through the switch, we know that connectivity, duplex. Speed, etc. are good. However, for the switch itself to reach networks outside the local one, the ip default-gateway command must be used.

QUESTION 89
A router has two Fast Ethernet interfaces and needs to connect to four VLANs in the local network. How can you accomplish this task, using the fewest physical interfaces and without decreasing network performance?

A.    Use a hub to connect the four VLANS with a Fast Ethernet interface on the router.
B.    Add a second router to handle the VLAN traffic.
C.    Add two more Fast Ethernet interfaces.
D.    Implement a router-on-a-stick configuration.

Answer: D
Explanation:
A router on a stick allows you to use sub-interfaces to create multiple logical networks on a single physical interface.

QUESTION 90
A network administrator is trying to add a new router into an established OSPF network. The networks attached to the new router do not appear in the routing tables of the other OSPF routers. Given the information in the partial configuration shown below, what configuration error is causing this problem?
Router(config)# router ospf 1
Router(config-router)# network 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 area 0

A.    The process id is configured improperly.
B.    The OSPF area is configured improperly.
C.    The network wildcard mask is configured improperly.
D.    The network number is configured improperly.
E.    The AS is configured improperly.
F.    The network subnet mask is configured improperly.

Answer: C
Explanation:
When configuring OSPF, the mask used for the network statement is a wildcard mask similar to an access list. In this specific example, the correct syntax would have been “network 10.0.0.0 0.0.0.255 area 0.”

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QUESTION 71
What is the default maximum number of equal-cost paths that can be placed into the routing table of a Cisco OSPF router?

A.    2
B.    4
C.    16
D.    unlimited

Answer: B
Explanation:
maximum-paths (OSPF)
To control the maximum number of parallel routes that Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) can support, use the maximum-paths command.
Syntax Description
maximum
Maximum number of parallel routes that OSPF can install in a routing table. The range is from 1 to 16 routes.
Command Default
8 paths

QUESTION 72
Which command shows your active Telnet connections?

A.    show cdp neigbors
B.    show session
C.    show users
D.    show vty logins

Answer: B
Explanation:
The “show users” shows telnet/ssh connections to your router while “show sessions” shows telnet/ssh connections from your router (to other devices). The question asks about “your active Telnet connections”, meaning connections from your router so the answer should be A.

QUESTION 73
Which type of EIGRP route entry describes a feasible successor?

A.    a backup route, stored in the routing table
B.    a primary route, stored in the routing table
C.    a backup route, stored in the topology table
D.    a primary route, stored in the topology table

Answer: C
Explanation:
EIGRP uses the Neighbor Table to list adjacent routers. The Topology Table list all the learned routers to destination whilst the Routing Table contains the best route to a destination, which is known as the Successor. The Feasible Successor is a backup route to a destination which is kept in the Topology Table.

QUESTION 74
Which statement describes the process of dynamically assigning IP addresses by the DHCP server?

A.    Addresses are allocated after a negotiation between the server and the host to determine the length
of the agreement.
B.    Addresses are permanently assigned so that the hosts uses the same address at all times.
C.    Addresses are assigned for a fixed period of time, at the end of the period, a new request for an address
must be made.
D.    Addresses are leased to hosts, which periodically contact the DHCP server to renew the lease.

Answer: D
Explanation:
The DHCP lifecycle consists of the following:
Release: The client may decide at any time that it no longer wishes to use the IP address it was assigned, and may terminate the lease, releasing the IP address.

QUESTION 75
What are two benefits of using NAT? (Choose two.)

A.    NAT facilitates end-to-end communication when IPsec is enabled.
B.    NAT eliminates the need to re-address all hosts that require external access.
C.    NAT conserves addresses through host MAC-level multiplexing.
D.    Dynamic NAT facilitates connections from the outside of the network.
E.    NAT accelerates the routing process because no modifications are made on the packets.
F.    NAT protects network security because private networks are not advertised.

Answer: BF
Explanation:
By not revealing the internal Ip addresses, NAT adds some security to the inside network -> F is correct.
NAT has to modify the source IP addresses in the packets -> E is not correct.
Connection from the outside of the network through a “NAT” network is more difficult than a more network because IP addresses of inside hosts are hidden -> C is not correct.
In order for IPsec to work with NAT we need to allow additional protocols, including Internet Key Exchange (IKE), Encapsulating Security Payload (ESP) and Authentication Header (AH) -> more complex -> A is not correct.
By allocating specific public IP addresses to inside hosts, NAT eliminates the need to re-address the inside hosts -> B is correct.
NAT does conserve addresses but not through host MAC-level multiplexing. It conserves addresses by allowing many private IP addresses to use the same public IP address to go to the Internet -> C is not correct.

QUESTION 76
On which options are standard access lists based?

A.    destination address and wildcard mask
B.    destination address and subnet mask
C.    source address and subnet mask
D.    source address and wildcard mask

Answer: D
Explanation:
Standard ACL’s only examine the source IP address/mask to determine if a match is made. Extended ACL’s examine the source and destination address, as well as port information.

QUESTION 77
A network engineer wants to allow a temporary entry for a remote user with a specific username and password so that the user can access the entire network over the Internet. Which ACL can be used?

A.    standard
B.    extended
C.    dynamic
D.    reflexive

Answer: C
Explanation:
We can use a dynamic access list to authenticate a remote user with a specific username and password. The authentication process is done by the router or a central access server such as a TACACS+ or RADIUS server. The configuration of dynamic ACL can be read here:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/tk583/tk822/technologies_tech_note09186a0080094524.shtml

QUESTION 78
How does a DHCP server dynamically assign IP addresses to hosts?

A.    Addresses are permanently assigned so that the host uses the same address at all times.
B.    Addresses are assigned for a fixed period of time. At the end of the period, a new request for an
address must be made, and another address is then assigned.
C.    Addresses are leased to hosts. A host will usually keep the same address by periodically contacting
the DHCP server to renew the lease.
D.    Addresses are allocated after a negotiation between the server and the host to determine the length
of the agreement.

Answer: C
Explanation:
DHCP works in a client/server mode and operates like any other client/server relationship. When a PC connects to a DHCP server, the server assigns or leases an IP address to that PC. The PC connects to the network with that leased IP address until the lease expires. The host must contact the DHCP server periodically to extend the lease. This lease mechanism ensures that hosts that move or power off do not hold onto addresses that they do not need. The DHCP server returns these addresses to the address pool and reallocates them as necessary.

QUESTION 79
Which two tasks does the Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol perform? (Choose two.)

A.    Set the IP gateway to be used by the network.
B.    Perform host discovery used DHCPDISCOVER message.
C.    Configure IP address parameters from DHCP server to a host.
D.    Provide an easy management of layer 3 devices.
E.    Monitor IP performance using the DHCP server.
F.    Assign and renew IP address from the default pool.

Answer: CF
Explanation:
The Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) is a network protocol used to configure devices that are connected to a network (known as hosts) so they can communicate on that network using the Internet Protocol (IP). It involves clients and a server operating in a client-server model. DHCP servers assigns IP addresses from a pool of addresses and also assigns other parameters such as DNS and default gateways to hosts.

QUESTION 80
When a DHCP server is configured, which two IP addresses should never be assignable to hosts? (Choose two.)

A.    network or subnetwork IP address
B.    broadcast address on the network
C.    IP address leased to the LAN
D.    IP address used by the interfaces
E.    manually assigned address to the clients
F.    designated IP address to the DHCP server

Answer: AB
Explanation:
Network or subnetwork IP address (for example 11.0.0.0/8 or 13.1.0.0/16) and broadcast address (for example 23.2.1.255/24) should never be assignable to hosts. When try to assign these addresses to hosts, you will receive an error message saying that they can’t be assignable.

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QUESTION 61
Which statements describe the routing protocol OSPF? (Choose three.)

A.    It supports VLSM.
B.    It is used to route between autonomous systems.
C.    It confines network instability to one area of the network.
D.    It increases routing overhead on the network.
E.    It allows extensive control of routing updates.
F.    It is simpler to configure than RIP v2.

Answer: ACE
Explanation:
The OSPF protocol is based on link-state technology, which is a departure from the Bellman-Ford vector based algorithms used in traditional Internet routing protocols such as RIP. OSPF has introduced new concepts such as authentication of routing updates, Variable Length Subnet Masks (VLSM), route summarization, and so forth.
OSPF uses flooding to exchange link-state updates between routers. Any change in routing information is flooded to all routers in the network. Areas are introduced to put a boundary on the explosion of link-state updates. Flooding and calculation of the Dijkstra algorithm on a router is limited to changes within an area.

QUESTION 62
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator configures a new router and enters the copy startup-config running-config command on the router. The network administrator powers down the router and sets it up at a remote location. When the router starts, it enters the system configuration dialog as shown. What is the cause of the problem?

A.    The network administrator failed to save the configuration.
B.    The configuration register is set to 0x2100.
C.    The boot system flash command is missing from the configuration.
D.    The configuration register is set to 0x2102.
E.    The router is configured with the boot system startup command.

Answer: A
Explanation:
The “System Configuration Dialog” appears only when no startup configuration file is found. The network administrator has made a mistake because the command “copy startup-config running- config” will copy the startup config (which is empty) over the running config (which is configured by the administrator). So everything configured was deleted. Note: We can tell the router to ignore the start-up configuration on the next reload by setting the register to 0?142. This will make the “System Configuration Dialog” appear at the next reload.

QUESTION 63
What is the default administrative distance of OSPF?

A.    90
B.    100
C.    110
D.    120

Answer: C
Explanation:
Administrative distance is the feature that routers use in order to select the best path when there are two or more different routes to the same destination from two different routing protocols. Administrative distance defines the reliability of a routing protocol. Each routing protocol is prioritized in order of most to least reliable (believable) with the help of an administrative distance value.
Default Distance Value Table
This table lists the administrative distance default values of the protocols that Cisco supports:
Route Source
Default Distance Values
Connected interface
Static route
Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (EIGRP) summary route External Border Gateway Protocol (BGP)
Internal EIGRP
IGRP
OSPF
Intermediate System-to-Intermediate System (IS-IS)
Routing Information Protocol (RIP)
Exterior Gateway Protocol (EGP)
On Demand Routing (ODR)
External EIGRP
Internal BGP
Unknown*

QUESTION 64
Which characteristics are representative of a link-state routing protocol? (Choose three.)

A.    provides common view of entire topology
B.    exchanges routing tables with neighbors
C.    calculates shortest path
D.    utilizes event-triggered updates
E.    utilizes frequent periodic updates

Answer: ACD
Explanation:
Each of routers running link-state routing protocol learns paths to all the destinations in its “area” so we can say although it is a bit unclear.
Link-state routing protocols generate routing updates only (not the whole routing table) when a change occurs in the network topology so
Link-state routing protocol like OSPF uses Dijkstra algorithm to calculate the shortest path -> . Unlike Distance vector routing protocol (which utilizes frequent periodic updates), link-state routing protocol utilizes event-triggered updates (only sends update when a change occurs) ->

QUESTION 65
Which command would you configure globally on a Cisco router that would allow you to view directly connected Cisco devices?

A.    enable cdp
B.    cdp enable
C.    cdp run
D.    run cdp

Answer: C
Explanation:
CDP is enabled on Cisco routers by default. If you prefer not to use the CDP capability, disable it with the no cdp run command. In order to reenable CDP, use the cdp run command in global configuration mode. The “cdp enable” command is an interface command, not global.

QUESTION 66
Which two locations can be configured as a source for the IOS image in the boot system command? (Choose two.)

A.    RAM
B.    NVRAM
C.    flash memory
D.    HTTP server
E.    TFTP server
F.    Telnet server

Answer: CE
Explanation:
The following locations can be configured as a source for the IOS image:
1. + Flash (the default location)
2. + TFTP server
3. + ROM (used if no other source is found)

QUESTION 67
Which two statements describe the process identifier that is used in the command to configure OSPF on a router? (Choose two.)
Router(config)# router ospf 1

A.    All OSPF routers in an area must have the same process ID
B.    Only one process number can be used on the same router.
C.    Different process identifiers can be used to run multiple OSPF processes
D.    The process number can be any number from 1 to 65,535.
E.    Hello packets are sent to each neighbor to determine the processor identifier.

Answer: CD
Explanation:
Multiple OSPF processes can be configured on a router using multiple process ID’s.
The valid process ID’s are shown below:
Edge-B(config)#router ospf ?
<1-65535> Process ID

QUESTION 68
Which three elements must be used when you configure a router interface for VLAN trunking? (Choose three.)

A.    one physical interface for each subinterface
B.    one IP network or subnetwork for each subinterface
C.    a management domain for each subinterface
D.    subinterface encapsulation identifiers that match VLAN tags
E.    one subinterface per VLAN
F.    subinterface numbering that matches VLAN tags

Answer: BDE
Explanation:
This scenario is commonly called a router on a stick. A short, well written article on this operation can be found here:
http://www.thebryantadvantage.com/RouterOnAStickCCNACertificationExamTutorial.htm

QUESTION 69
Which commands are required to properly configure a router to run OSPF and to add network 192.168.16.0/24 to OSPF area 0? (Choose two.)

A.    Router(config)# router ospf 0
B.    Router(config)# router ospf 1
C.    Router(config)# router ospf area 0
D.    Router(config-router)# network 192.168.16.0 0.0.0.255 0
E.    Router(config-router)# network 192.168.16.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
F.    Router(config-router)# network 192.168.16.0 255.255.255.0 area 0

Answer: BE
Explanation:
In the router ospf
command, the ranges from 1 to 65535 so o is an invalid number -> but To configure OSPF, we need a wildcard in the “network” statement, not a subnet mask. We also need to assgin an area to this process -> .

QUESTION 70
A router receives information about network 192.168.10.0/24 from multiple sources. What will the router consider the most reliable information about the path to that network?

A.    a directly connected interface with an address of 192.168.10.254/24
B.    a static route to network 192.168.10.0/24
C.    a RIP update for network 192.168.10.0/24
D.    an OSPF update for network 192.168.0.0/16
E.    a default route with a next hop address of 192.168.10.1
F.    a static route to network 192.168.10.0/24 with a local serial interface configured as the next hop

Answer: A
Explanation:
When there is more than one way to reach a destination, it will choose the best one based on a couple of things. First, it will choose the route that has the longest match; meaning the most specific route. So, in this case the /24 routes will be chosen over the /16 routes. Next, from all the /24 routes it will choose the one with the lowest administrative distance. Directly connected routes have an AD of 1 so this will be the route chosen.

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